The article posted by Timminz makes two excellent points, regarding the individual mandate:
(original post)
1. The US government (via George Washington and the Militia Acts of 1792) has forced people to join a militia and buy their own military equipment/supplies. And this is all and well with the constitution since "Congress can regulate a ‘well-regulated’ militia with a mandate."
Criticism: well, this applies to making a militia, or for national defense, so I don't see how this is relevant to forcing people to buy healthcare insurance.
2. "That’s right, Congress enacted an individual mandate requiring [seamen to] purchase ... health insurance."
(via Commerce Clause)
2a. Interestingly enough, 'most framers supported such acts (#2), and the dissenters didn't object on constitutional grounds.' -Einer Elhauge (paraphrased)
Criticism: Okay, good point, good point; however, since #2 only applied to ship owners and seamen, I can understand why there were few objections, and none rooted in constitutional grounds. Nevertheless, if such a law/individual mandate were applied
to everyone, I wonder if the framers would have reacted differently.
My Basic Position re: this thread
If the US in the late late 1700s was highly geared toward freer markets, then the markets might have been able to make up for most negative unintended consequences from the "Seamen Mandate." If that's the case, then #1 and #2 probably were not problematic; however, these times are different. I'm extremely skeptical in granting the US federal government such additional power because (a) it sets the precedent for further state intervention, and (2) given that today's health insurance industry is highly regulated and favoring only a few (i.e. crony capitalist), it seems that the good intentions of the policymakers will lead to outcomes whose benefits won't offset the costs. That's my concern.